[ad_1]
What can we are saying concerning the distinction of two binomial distribution chances


Take into account two impartial binomial distributions with chances of successes p_1 and p_2. If we observe a_1 successes, b_1 failures from the primary distribution and a_2 successes, b_2 failures from the second distribution, what can we are saying concerning the distinction, p_1 – p_2?
Binomial mannequin variations like this had been first studied by Laplace in 1778. Laplace noticed that the ratio of boys-to-girls born in London was notably bigger than the ratio of boys-to-girls born in Paris, and he sought to find out whether or not the distinction was important.
Utilizing what would now be referred to as Bayesian inference along with a uniform prior, Laplace computed the posterior likelihood that the delivery ratio in London was lower than the delivery ratio in Paris as
the place
[ad_2]
Source link